betfair odds for MotoGP world champion

Discussion in 'Motorcycle Racing' started by robotiser, Sep 12, 2006.

  1. robotiser

    robotiser Guest

    I don't bet. Ever. But I've noticed that the odds for MotoGP champion
    have Rossi at 2.04 to 1 and Hayden at 2.94 to 1. Is Rossi really a
    better bet for the championship than Hayden?
     
    robotiser, Sep 12, 2006
    #1
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  2. robotiser

    robotiser Guest

    I don't claim to understand betting. But I thought that odds changed as
    people made bets as the bookies changed their odds to improve their
    chance of winning. In motor racing in the mid-90s, too many brits used
    to bet on Damon Hill winning, that his odds changed even though the
    chance of him winning races hadn't. So the lower odds on Rossi might be
    due to large numbers of people betting on him to win, rather than it
    being an indication that the bookies believe he is more likely to win.

    Assuming that betfair has "bookies" of some sort setting the odds.
     
    robotiser, Sep 13, 2006
    #2
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  3. robotiser

    S Frank Guest

    After the last couple of races, I would think Pedrosa and Rossi
    both have a better chance than Hayden if either him or his
    bike does not improve.
     
    S Frank, Sep 13, 2006
    #3
  4. robotiser

    robotiser Guest

    Thank you.

    So if the odds for Rossi winning were 2.04, and Hayden 2.94. Both "to
    one". If we ignore the other riders for a bit, then if 1000 people have
    put £1 on Rossi, and 10 have put £1 on Hayden, then if Rossi wins the
    bookie has a profit of

    10 - 2.04 * 1000 = £-2030

    and if Hayden wins their profit is

    1000 - 10 * 2.94 = £970.60

    So in order to make their potential losses if Rossi wins less extreme,
    they want more people to bet on Hayden. So they increase the odds on
    Hayden to 3.5:1 to encourage more people to bet on him. This could be
    higher than the real objective odds that Hayden will win, but is done
    to balance potential winnings against potential losses.

    But I can't see how the 50/50 spread means that the bookie makes money
    no matter who wins. Not with just two riders. With more riders I can
    see it, as if we include Pedrosa and Capirossi, then the odds could be
    adjusted so that the total bet on other riders is always higher than
    the payout on any one winning rider. Is it possible to have a "bookie
    always makes money" situation with just two riders?

    Actually running a "book" looks like an interesting problem. I assume
    that there are computer programs out there that can do it automatically.
     
    robotiser, Sep 13, 2006
    #4
  5. robotiser

    DaveW Guest

    On 13 Sep 2006 09:14:11 -0700, ""

    He makes it off the "vig" - if there's $1000 on each rider, the winner
    gets $1000, and the losers pays $1100, with the standard 10% vig on
    losing bets (at least with most bookies here in the States). So he
    basically makes 5% of the gross if he can insure an equal amount of
    money on either side of a two-outcome event.
     
    DaveW, Sep 13, 2006
    #5
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