Tarlybarn, Brark ubarma, Parkystarn...

That's the trouble with you single language speakers. Now say "Ohlins" as it
should be said, or simply try writing it phonetically.


--
Beav

VN 750
Zed 1000
OMF# 19

 

We didn't conquer half the world, subjugating the masses to have our
language polluted by (written) accents.

But yes, it's shit, and not entirely immune from being open to
interpretation. (accent, accent ? )

Paul.

 

Neither are `phonetic' languages, c.f. `ll' in Spanish or `s' in
Italian.

 

I would have guessed that dog would be multi-lingual, but I certainly
can't say that I actually know.

 

Thing is, we'd already been conquered a million times, so English is
surely the most polluted (evolved?) language on the planet. So why not
use the good bits of foreign?

Funny how so many assumptions are made now about the origins of words. I
was speaking to a bunch of Spaniards who were convinced that the word
television, just because it's something techy, was an anglicism. They
didn't recognise the "vision" to be their very own Latin and the "tele"
to be Greek. I suppose the combination of the two could be said to have
originated in the Anglo saxon tongue, but now I'm just waffling. I'll go
and make a cup of tea.

 

tbf i do tend to speak only one language at a time, at least on a word by
word basis.

 

Darling pheeeeesh put - is this the first time you have loved
skiiiirrrrrrch put.

 

I'm fairly sure we could add Latin and Italian to that list. He'll be
far too modest to list them all on here, I suspect.

 

Heh. I no tengo ni puta idea what you're talking about.

 

"English - not so much borrowing words from other languages as chasing
them up alleyways and mugging them for entire chucks of vocabulary".

Because one is speech and the other is writing. It's easy to
incorporate bits of other peoples speech into your own but writing it
down usually means changing it to your language style.

It came about because science used to be done in Latin and Greek and it
became a habit even when no longer relying on the old Greek and Latin
texts.

Which is why plant names are still done in Latin.

Phil

 

Actually, plants were given scientific names in Latin because by then
Latin was a dead language and the words would not change their
meanings.

 

¿Qué? There are regional variations in pronunciation, but once you know
the rules, you can read anything in Spanish and pronounce it correctly
without understanding a word. What about the 'll'? Incidentally, it used
to be a single letter, but the yanks didn't put it in ascii. Same with
'ch'.

Phonetic to me says it reads as it's written and you can't get it wrong.

 

Exactly: there are regional variations in pronunciation (`calle':
`caye', `caje', etc.). The Spanish of my teacher (from Argentina) is
not pronounced the same as that of a Spanish speaker from Madrid or
Valencia, or even that of another Latin American.

The `s' in Italian varies a lot between North and South (`scusa' can
be `scuza' or `shcuza'), likewise Florentines pronounce their `c'
quite differently (they drink `Hoha Hola').

But the rules on how to read what is written vary from place to place.
`Proper' phonetic would be a guarantee that `it reads as it's written
*and vice versa*'.

 

In Argentina they talk funny. They pronounce y and ll as sh.

Allowing for regional variations in pronunciation of individual letters,
Spanish is phonetic in as much as one doesn't need to be told how to
pronounce/stress stuff. Máquina has the first syllable stressed
*everywhere*. And I don't need to tell you that, because it's phonetic. I
don't see how the pronunciation of individual letters makes a difference
except between geographical areas. Anyway, in Castilian (which is what
I'm talking about) the ll is pronounced 'ly' in educated circles. Mind
you, the politicians pronounce a d at the end of a word as th. Tossers.
"Marrith" indeed. "Liberrrtath" - goodness me.

 

using the term "castilian lisp" in conversation is a good way to start a
completely pointless argument.

 

Nothing pisses me off more in English than describing a piece of food
as 'hot'. The Italians have it right with 'piccante' and 'caldo'

P.

 

My neighbour (took me a minute to figure out how to spell that)
pronounces both c (befor i or e) and z, as s and lithsps her s. Andalusia
is known for its awful pronunciation, mind. Everyone's called Joe here.
And b, v and m are all identical.

http://es.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dialecto_andaluz
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Andalusian_Spanish

 

So you agree with me that `phonetic languages' are `not entirely
immune from being open to interpretation'?

 

That's "spicy" (active participle of summat wot picks - this may be
nonsense).

Don't know about Itie, but in Spanish that's "stock" (veg, beef etc),
whereas "cálido" means warm.

 

Absolutely. But not officially. There is an official way to read and
pronounce based on rules. Spanish *spoken in a consistent manner* is
always the same based on rules. The stress on syllables is *always* as
written and the vowels are almost pure. "Bath" could never be "barth" and
"máquina" can never be "maquiná". I could make up a new word and noone
would be able to pronounce it wrong.

Having said all that, after 5 years, I understand the owner of my local
bar about as well as I understand a geordie or a scouse - ie; hardly at
all.